Archive Of Standardized Exam Questions: Condylomata Acuminata (Genital Warts)

OVERVIEW

This page is dedicated to organizing various examples of standardized exam questions whose answer is condylomata acuminate (genital warts). While this may seem a odd practice, it is useful to see multiple examples of how condylomata acuminate (genital warts) will be characterized on standardized exams (namely the boards and the shelf exams). This page is not meant to be used as a tradition question bank (as all of the answers will be the same), however seeing the classic “test” characterization for a disease is quite valuable.

QUESTION EXAMPLES

Question # 1

A 33 year old woman comes to the clinic for the valuation of vulvar versions that have worsened over the past 7 weeks. She has has 2 sexual partners this year. Her medical history includes genital herpes that was diagnosed at age 21. When she was 25 her pattern was treated for syphilis. Her pap smear last year revealed “atypical squamous cells of undermined significance”. She was negative for high risk HPV testing. She smokes cigarettes but does not use any alcohol or illicit drugs. An exam reveals multiple, small, papular growths at the vestibule of the vulva, and over the labia major. Some of the lesions are friable and bleed on manipulation . What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

Explanation: multiple small papules = condylomata acuminata (genital warts)

Question # 2

A previously healthy 21 year old woman comes to the clinic because of a bump on her vulva for the past week. She has been sexually active with only one partner for the past 2 years. She uses oral contraceptives to prevent pregnancy. Gynecological examination shows multiple 0.25-cm raised papules on the posterior fourchette. A Pap smear shows low-grade squamous intraeplthelial lesions. What is the likely diagnosis in this patient?

Explanation: multiple small papules = condylomata acuminata (genital warts)

Question # 3

A 21 year old woman comes to the clinic because of vaginal discharge. She explains that she initially noticed it 1 week ago. She is sexually active with 1 partner, and uses condoms inconsistently. She explains that she was recently treated for syphilis. Physical examination reveals no remarkable findings. A gynecological exam shows white verrucous lesions over the vagina and the cervix. A pap smear is conducted and it is reported as “atypical squamous cells”. HPV testing is negative for high risk strains. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

Explanation: verrucous genital lesions = condylomata acuminata (genital warts)

 

Page Updated: 10.17.2016